Given a function f(x)f(x), the function x↦∫0xf(t) dtx\mapsto \int_0^x f(t)\,dt is an anti-derivative of f(x)f(x) vanishing at x=0x=0. Continuing the process, the second anti-derivative (vanishing at x=0x=0) is x↦∫0xf(t)(x−t) dtx\mapsto \int_0^x f(t)(x-t)\,dt, the third anti-derivative (vanishing at x=0x=0) is x↦∫0xf(t)(x−t)22! dtx\mapsto \int_0^x f(t)\frac{(x-t)^2}{2!}\,dt, and so on. Now, here's a question about these "repeated anti-derivatives".

Is there a nonzero continuous function f(x)f(x) such that ∫01f(t)(1−t)nn! dt=0\int_0^1 f(t) \frac{(1-t)^n}{n!}\,dt = 0 for all positive integers nn?

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