Let π ⁣:X→Y\pi\colon X\to Y be a morphism of schemes, and g∈OY(Y)g\in \mathcal{O}_Y(Y) a global section on YY. Recall that YgY_g is defined to be the set of points y∈Yy\in Y such that gy∉myg_y\notin \mathfrak{m}_y.

Is it true that π−1Yg=Xπ♯g\pi^{-1} Y_g = X_{\pi^\sharp g}?

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