Let kk be a field of characteristic zero (just to be safe) and define the projective scheme X=Proj⁡k[x,y,z]/(xy−z2)X = \operatorname{Proj} k[x,y,z]/(xy-z^2) over Spec⁡k\operatorname{Spec}k. Since XX is a conic with a rational point, it is isomorphic to P1=Pk1\mathbb{P}^1 = \mathbb{P}^1_k by the "slope-parameterization" trick.

Consider the following alternative argument for constructing an isomorphism.

  • Step 1: The line bundle (invertible sheaf) OX(1)\mathcal{O}_X(1) is globally generated (on stalks) by x,y∈Γ(X,OX(1))x,y\in \Gamma(X,\mathcal{O}_X(1)).
  • Step 2: Therefore, x,yx,y define a morphism of schemes f ⁣:X→P1f\colon X \to \mathbb{P}^1 in the usual way, informally given by the formula [x:y][x:y].
  • Step 3: Because f∗OP1(1)≅OX(1)f^\ast \mathcal{O}_{ \mathbb{P}^1}(1) \cong \mathcal{O}_X(1), the morphism ff is in fact an isomorphism of schemes.

Is the argument correct? If not, what is the first incorrect step?

Choose one answer

Type a concept, like “slope” or “photosynthesis”.

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