Let {an}\{a_n\} be a sequence for n≥1n \ge 1 such that lim⁡n→∞an=1\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = 1. Now let {bn}\{b_n\} be a sequence which satisfies b2n=anb_{2n} = a_n for all n≥1n \ge 1. Which of the following might be true of {bn}\{b_n\}?

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