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A function f(x)f(x) maps the elements of some set SS to elements in another set TT. Something helpful to consider is whether there is any way to "restore" the original set, i.e. whether there is a function g(x)g(x) from TT to SS so that for all s∈Ss \in S, g(f(s))=sg(f(s))=s. If such a function exists, gg is called the inverse of ff, written as f−1(x)f^{-1}(x) and ff is an invertible function.

The problem is, I lied. g(x)g(x) isn't a function from TT to SS, as we have defined it only for those t∈Tt\in T for which there is some s∈Ss \in S such that t=f(s)t=f(s). The domain of f−1f^{-1}, the values in TT that can actually be obtained by plugging something into SS, is called the image of the function ff. These are the same if ff is what is know as a surjective function.

Inverses have some nice properties. For example, if gg is the inverse of ff, then by definition for all s∈Ss \in S, g(f(s))=sg(f(s))=s. But this implies that f(g(f(s)))=f(s)f(g(f(s)))=f(s), and every element tt in the image of ff is by definition equal to f(s)f(s) for some s∈Ss \in S, so g(f(t))=tg(f(t))=t and ff is the inverse of gg. What this means is that (f−1)−1=f(f^{-1})^{-1}=f.

Finally, it can be helpful to, instead of taking a subset of SS and seeing what it is mapped to in TT, look at a subset II of TT and find the set of all s∈Ss\in S for which f(s)∈If(s) \in I. This set is called the preimage of II. As an example of this, by definition the preimage of the image of SS under any function equals SS

Which of the following functions is invertible?

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Type a concept, like “slope” or “photosynthesis”.

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