Interactive · 1 question
A function maps the elements of some set to elements in another set . Something helpful to consider is whether there is any way to "restore" the original set, i.e. whether there is a function from to so that for all , . If such a function exists, is called the inverse of , written as and is an invertible function.
The problem is, I lied. isn't a function from to , as we have defined it only for those for which there is some such that . The domain of , the values in that can actually be obtained by plugging something into , is called the image of the function . These are the same if is what is know as a surjective function.
Inverses have some nice properties. For example, if is the inverse of , then by definition for all , . But this implies that , and every element in the image of is by definition equal to for some , so and is the inverse of . What this means is that .
Finally, it can be helpful to, instead of taking a subset of and seeing what it is mapped to in , look at a subset of and find the set of all for which . This set is called the preimage of . As an example of this, by definition the preimage of the image of under any function equals
Which of the following functions is invertible?