Interactive · 2 questions
A function satisfies that for all x in the domain of f, . There is only one unique number y, i.e. we cannot have at the same time.
Based on this, is a function?
To test for whether something is a function or not, we use the vertical line test.
If there is a vertical line that intersects the graph of the "function" at two different spots, it is not a function.
In our example, . Now the vertical line intersects at so the thing is not a function.
A function only has an inverse if there is a one-to-one correspondence between and .
Remember that inverses of functions satisfy
The ** horizontal line test ** tells us that if a horizontal line intersects a function at two different spots, the function has no inverse. The reason is that if the line hits the graph at then the inverse function would satisfy , which is impossible.
Does the function have an inverse?