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The Binomial Theorem.

(x+y)n=∑k=0n(nk)xn−kyk=(n0)xny0+(n1)xn−1y1+⋯+(nn−1)x1yn−1+(nn)x0yn.\begin {align*} \left( x + y \right)^n &= \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{n} \dbinom {n}{k} x^{n-k} y^k \\&= \dbinom {n}{0} x^n y^0 + \dbinom {n}{1} x^{n-1} y^1 + \cdots + \dbinom {n}{n-1} x^1 y^{n-1} + \dbinom {n}{n} x^0 y^n. \end {align*}

Proof. We use mathematical induction on nn. When n=0n=0, both sides equal 11, and it is easy to see that the statement is true. For the inductive step, say we are given that the statement is true for some n−1n-1. We will now prove it for nn. (x+y)n=(x+y)⋅(x+y)n−1=(x+y)⋅[∑k=0n−1(n−1k)x(n−1)−kyk]=∑k=0n−1(n−1k)xn−kyk+∑j=0n−1(n−1j)x(n−1)−jyj+1=∑k=0n−1(n−1k)xn−kyk+∑k=1n(n−1k−1)xn−kyk=∑k=0n[(n−1k)+(n−1k−1)]⋅xn−kyk=∑k=0n(nk)xn−kyk,\begin {align*} \left( x + y \right)^{n} &= \left( x + y \right) \cdot \left( x + y \right)^{n-1} \\&= \left( x + y \right) \cdot \left[ \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \dbinom {n-1}{k} x^{(n-1)-k} y^k \right] \\&= \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \dbinom {n-1}{k} x^{n-k} y^k + \displaystyle\sum_{j=0}^{n-1} \dbinom {n-1}{j} x^{(n-1)-j} y^{j+1} \\&= \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \dbinom {n-1}{k} x^{n-k} y^k + \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{n} \dbinom {n-1}{k-1} x^{n-k} y^k \\&= \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{n} \left[ \dbinom {n-1}{k} + \dbinom {n-1}{k-1} \right] \cdot x^{n-k} y^k \\&= \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^{n} \dbinom {n}{k} x^{n-k} y^k, \end {align*} as desired. ■\blacksquare

Math as a puzzle

Many contest problems feel more like puzzles than homework. They are a good way to find out how much fun math can be. These are real problems from the AMC 12 and AIME, the national math competitions for middle and high school students, each with a worked solution on LIVE by Po-Shen Loh.

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The Binomial Theorem states that when nn is a positive integer, the binomial expansion of (a+b)n(a+b)^n is (n0)anb0+(n1)an−1b1+(n2)an−2b2+(n3)an−3b3+⋯+(nn)a0bn.{n \choose 0}a^nb^0+{n \choose 1}a^{n-1}b^1+{n \choose 2}a^{n-2}b^2+{n \choose 3}a^{n-3}b^3+\cdots+{n \choose n}a^0b^n.

This has n+1n+1 terms.

  • The notation for a combination (sometimes read as "nn choose kk"): (nk)=n!k!(n−k)!{n \choose k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

  • The value of (nk){n \choose k} can also be found using the Pascal's Triangle: it is the kk-th number from left to right in the nn-th row. (Remember that the Pascal's Triangle begins with the 00-th row and number!)

What is the value of (53)\binom{5}{3}?

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Video

(Video) Applications of the Binomial Theorem

by NotesCollegeAlgebra

In this video by NotesCollegeAlgebra and application to the binomial theorem for approximating an exponentiation of a decimal is worked out.

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The normal approximation to the binomial distribution

Note: You should read other explanations about binomial theorem, properties of binomial coefficient first.

Here is an application on how to use binomial theorem to find normal approximation to the binomial distribution.

A coin is flipped nn times with probability of getting heads is pp. This is a binomial distribution X∼B(n,p)X \sim B(n,p). The Year 12 MATH B textbook (Australia) gives an normal approximation to this: B(n,p)∼N(np,np(1−p))=N(μ,σ2)B(n,p) \sim N(np,np(1-p))=N(\mu, \sigma^2) where μ=E[X]\mu=E[X] is the mean (or expected value) and σ\sigma is the standard deviation. Since the textbook doesn't give a proof for this so I will go and prove. :D

According to the definition, the expected value (or the mean) of getting heads is E[X]=μ=∑i=0ni(ni)pi(1−p)n−iE[X]=\mu= \sum_{i=0}^n i\binom{n}{i}p^i(1-p)^{n-i}. It suffices to prove that ∑i=0ni(ni)pi(1−p)n−i=np\sum_{i=0}^n i\binom{n}{i}p^i(1-p)^{n-i} =np. We have 1np∑i=0ni(ni)pi(1−p)n−i=∑i=1nin(ni)pi−1(1−p)n−i,=∑i=1n(n−1i−1)pi−1(1−p)n−i,=∑i=0n−1(n−1i)pi(1−p)n−1−i=1.\begin{aligned} \frac{1}{np}\sum_{i=0}^n i\binom{n}{i}p^i(1-p)^{n-i} & = \sum_{i=1}^n\frac in \binom{n}{i} p^{i-1}(1-p)^{n-i}, \\ & = \sum_{i=1}^n\binom{n-1}{i-1} p^{i-1}(1-p)^{n-i}, \\ & = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\binom{n-1}{i}p^i(1-p)^{n-1-i} = 1. \end{aligned} Now, for σ2\sigma^2, according to the definition, we have σ2=∑i=0n(i−μ)2(ni)pi(1−p)n−i=∑i=0ni2(ni)pi(1−p)n−i−n2p2.\sigma^2= \sum_{i=0}^n(i-\mu)^2 \binom ni p^i(1-p)^{n-i}= \sum_{i=0}^ni^2 \binom ni p^i(1-p)^{n-i}-n^2p^2. Hence, it suffices to prove that ∑i=0ni2(ni)pi(1−p)n−i=np(1+np−p).\sum_{i=0}^ni^2 \binom ni p^i(1-p)^{n-i}= np(1+np-p). Indeed, we have 1np∑i=0ni2(ni)pi(1−p)n−i=∑i=1ni(n−1i−1)pi−1(1−p)n−i,=∑i=0n−1i(n−1i)pi(1−p)n−i−1+∑i=0n−1(n−1i)pi(1−p)n−i−1,=(n−1)p+1.\begin{aligned} \frac{1}{np}\sum_{i=0}^ni^2 \binom ni p^i(1-p)^{n-i} & = \sum_{i=1}^ni \binom{n-1}{i-1}p^{i-1}(1-p)^{n-i}, \\ & = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1}i\binom{n-1}{i}p^i(1-p)^{n-i-1}\\&+\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}\binom{n-1}{i}p^{i}(1-p)^{n-i-1}, \\ & = (n-1)p+1. \end{aligned} We are done. □\square

Illustrated · 1 min

The Binomial Theorem

Right now, we have been multiplying out factors in order to get expanded polynomials. However, as we get to binomials with larger and larger degrees, it will become way too much work to multiply out all of the factors. That's where the Binomial Theorem comes in! We can use the solved term in the expansion.

Binomial Theorem
For binomials of the form (a+b)^n,
(a+b)^n = {sum from k=0 to n} (n choose k) a^{n-k} n^{k}
Using Pascal's Triangle!

Image source: by Anusha Rahman

Now, we can take a shortcut when expanding binomials. We can use this formula to expand binomial expressions with really large powers. Think about it: if you had to expand (x+3)19(x+3)^19, do you really want to multiply out all of those factors?

No! We can use the binomial coefficients to make our lives simpler. This formula also gives us a nifty cheat, called Pascal's Triangle. Once you expand a binomial, they follow the same pattern.

Looking Further

We can also use factorial notation to expand polynomials, which you will learn about in the next lesson. You may also want to review the factorial.

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